Campbell Biology Chapter 7 Reading Guide Answers

i) Innate immunity
A) is activated immediately upon infection.
B) depends on a newly infected animal'due south previous exposure to the same pathogen.
C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens.
D) is found but in vertebrate animals.
Due east) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells.

2) Acidity in human urine is an example of
A) cell-mediated immune responses.
B) antibiotic activation.
C) caused immunity.
D) adaptive immunity.
E) innate immunity.

iii) A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by
A) its plasma cells.
B) its immunoglobulins.
C) its antibodies.
D) its antimicrobial peptides.
E) its B cells.

4) Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate amnesty include all of the post-obit except
A) neutrophils.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) natural killer cells.

five

5) The lymphatic fluid
A) is a filtrate of the blood, equally is urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory arrangement for blood.
C) carries both red and white claret cells.
D) functions in adaptive immunity only not in innate immunity.
E) carries a toxic gas that kills malignant cells.

vi) An inflammation-causing betoken released past mast cells at the site of an infection is
A) an interferon.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) histamine.
D) fungus.
E) sodium ions.

7) A systemic inflammatory response that is ofttimes life-threatening is
A) balmy fever.
B) aches and dull pain.
C) septic shock.
D) loftier blood pressure.
E) increased white blood cell count.

8) The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) the secretion of complement proteins.
C) the release of slightly element of group i secretions.
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces.
E) interferons produced by immune cells.

nine) Salmonella bacterial poisoning can exist initiated when
A) the microbe survives the acidic surround of the stomach and resists lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
B) the chemotactic messengers released by the microbe exercise not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
C) there is a filibuster in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and fight these microbes.
D) the microbes release chemical messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the tummy sufficiently so that ingested microbes are not destroyed.

10) The complement system is
A) a ready of proteins involved in innate only not caused immunity.
B) a prepare of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
C) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins.
D) a group of antimicrobial proteins that human action together in a cascade mode.
E) a set of proteins that act individually to set on and lyse microbes.

11) Antihistamine treatment reduces
A) claret vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by macrophages.
D) the secondary allowed response.
E) clonal option by antigens.

12) Cavern art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The virtually inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might announced in such early human art is
A) rut, hurting, and redness.
B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue.
C) swelling and pain.
D) antibody-producing cells.
East) swelling, oestrus, redness, and pain.

xiii) Ancient peoples sought to identify the indicators of inflammation considering
A) seeing such signs would be cause for their seeking out a healer in their community.
B) the presence of the signs of inflammation in a patient could exist a condemnation of the healer.
C) the ancients probably knew of establish derivatives that could reduce the pain of inflammation.
D) the presence of these signs suggests that healing was taking identify; otherwise, the patient would likely dice.
E) the signs of inflammation served as a caution to keep people abroad from the patient.

14) The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are
A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
B) the phagocytes and the chemokines.
C) the dendritic cells and the interferons.
D) the mast cells and the histamines.
E) the lymphocytes and the interferons.

15) Inflammatory responses typically include
A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection.
B) increased activeness of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area.
E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.

16) Bacteria entering the body through a pocket-size cutting in the skin
A) inactivate the erythrocytes.
B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby trunk cells.
C) stimulate release of interferons.
D) stimulate natural killer cell activity.
Eastward) actuate a group of proteins called complement.

17) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity action in its intestine that probable includes
A) complement.
B) lysozyme.
C) mucus.
D) neutrophils.
Eastward) dendritic cells.

18) In some insects, such equally Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can activate the protein Cost, which
A) acts every bit a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides.
B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it.
C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin.
D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific pathogens.
E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens.

nineteen) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates simply present in/on sure groups of pathogens, including viral
A) lipopolysaccharides.
B) double-stranded Deoxyribonucleic acid.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) glycoproteins.
East) phospholipids.

twenty) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels every bit well as an increase in their permeability, producing
A) redness and heat only.
B) swelling merely.
C) pain.
D) redness, rut, and swelling.
East) all of the signs of a major infection.

21) Septic daze, a systemic response including loftier fever and low blood pressure, is a response to
A) certain bacterial infections.
B) specific forms of viruses.
C) the presence of natural killer cells.
D) a fever of >103°F in adults.
Eastward) increased production of neutrophils.

22) Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will likely result in
A) devastation of the bacterium by NK cells.
B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and connected progression of the illness.
C) removal of the bacterium past dendritic cells and its concentration in lymph nodes.
D) the infected individual'south humoral amnesty condign the merely route of infection response.
E) lymphocytes migrating from the thymus to assault the bacterium.

23) Adaptive immunity depends on
A) traits common to groups of pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses.

24) Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would nigh quickly actuate its
A) Price-like receptors that bind to lipopolysaccharides.
B) retentivity cells to produce antibodies.
C) plasma cells to produce antigens.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) humoral allowed responses.

25) A central part of the humoral immune response is
A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host cells past perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.

26) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to
A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) natural killer cells.
D) double-stranded RNA.
E) immunoglobulins.

27) An epitope is
A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C) two structurally like antibodies dissolved in the claret plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror prototype of an antigen.

28) B cells take antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that
A) are active only in lymph nodes.
B) bind but to antigens present on the surface of the invading/strange cells.
C) bind simply to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma.
D) bind to antigens presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.
E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells.

29) Inside a differentiated B prison cell, the rearrangement of Dna sequences between variable regions and joining regions is accomplished past
A) polyadenylase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) epitopase.
E) recombinase.

30) Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to production of
A) large numbers of neutrophils.
B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized.
C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors.
D) long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen.
E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen.

31) Antigens are
A) proteins constitute in the claret that cause foreign blood cells to clump.
B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes.
C) proteins that consist of two light and 2 heavy polypeptide chains.
D) strange molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies.
E) proteins released during an inflammatory response.

32) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely
A) lack grade I MHC molecules on prison cell surfaces.
B) lack humoral amnesty.
C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
Due east) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.

33) Clonal selection implies that
A) brothers and sisters have like allowed responses.
B) antigens increment mitosis in specific lymphocytes.
C) only certain cells tin produce interferon.
D) a B jail cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E) the body selects which antigens it will answer to.

34) Clonal choice is an caption for how
A) a unmarried type of stalk jail cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) 5, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D) HIV can disrupt the allowed system.
E) macrophages tin recognize specific T cells and B cells.

35) Secondary immune responses upon a 2nd exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
A) memory cells.
B) macrophages.
C) stem cells.
D) B cells.
E) T cells.

36) The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to
A) distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D) identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences amongst types of cancer.

37) A patient who tin can produce antibodies confronting some bacterial pathogens, but not against viral infections, probably has a disorder in his
A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) natural killer cells.
D) T cells.
E) macrophages.

38) The activation of helper T cells is likely
A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines.
C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor prison cell.
D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance examination.
E) when B cells answer to T-contained antigens.

39) An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of any class, with regions symbolized as C or V, H or L, has a light concatenation made up of
A) 1 C region and one V region.
B) three C regions and one 5 region.
C) i H region and one L region.
D) three H regions and one L region.
E) ii C regions and two Five regions.

forty) The ability of one person to produce over a million dissimilar antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to
A) culling splicing of exons afterwards transcription.
B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules.
C) Deoxyribonucleic acid rearrangements.
D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells.
East) crossing over between the light and heavy bondage of each antibiotic molecule during meiosis I.

41) Immunological memory accounts for
A) the human trunk's ability to distinguish self from nonself.
B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than others.
C) the ability of a helper T cell to indicate B cells via cytokines.
D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely intendance for those newly diseased.
East) the ability of the allowed system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens.

42) The function of antibodies is to
A) inject toxins into living pathogens.
B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites.
C) release perforins to disrupt infected cells.
D) act as Toll-similar receptors.
E) marker pathogenic cells for devastation.

43) This type of immunity is present simply when a newborn baby is being fed by actively nursing on its mother and ends when nursing ends.
A) innate amnesty
B) agile immunity
C) passive immunity
D) jail cell-mediated amnesty
E) adaptive amnesty

44) Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because
A) of an increment in immunodeficiency diseases.
B) flu tin generate anaphylactic shock.
C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the second twelvemonth.
D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host cells.
East) flu leads to autoimmune disorders.

45) The jail cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
Eastward) B cells.

46) Which of the following cells are involved in jail cell-mediated amnesty and besides answer to form I MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells

47) The cells involved in innate immunity, whose absenteeism increases the chances of developing cancerous tumors, are
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.

48) Select the pathway that would pb to the activation of cytotoxic T cells.
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
B) body prison cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → course I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C) self-tolerance of allowed cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
D) complement is secreted → B prison cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released
Due east) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis

49) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is
A) lysozyme production.
B) phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C) antibody production by plasma cells.
D) histamine release by basophils.
East) lysis past natural killer cells.

50) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence.

I. Pathogen is destroyed.
2. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen demark to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Merely memory cells remain.

A) I → 3 → 2 → 4 → V
B) III → II → I → 5 → Four
C) Two → I → IV → 3 → V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) Three → 4 → II → I → Five

51) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and jail cell-mediated immune pathways is a
A) plasma cell.
B) cytotoxic T prison cell.
C) natural killer jail cell.
D) CD8 cell.
E) helper T cell.

52) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
A) respond to T-contained antigens.
B) lyse tumor cells.
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
Due east) interact with a form 2 MHC-antigen complex.

53) CD4 and CD8 are
A) proteins secreted past antigen-presenting cells.
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells.
C) T-independent antigens.
D) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with MHC molecules.
E) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they raise B cell activity.

54) T cells of the immune system include
A) CD4, CD8, and plasma cells.
B) cytotoxic and helper cells.
C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells.
D) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E) class I MHC, class II MHC, and retention cells.

55) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE antibodies.
B) B cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the form II MHC molecule-antigen circuitous on their surface.
D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines.

56) Normal immune responses tin can exist described as polyclonal considering
A) claret contains many dissimilar antibodies and antigens.
B) construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
C) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B prison cell.
D) diverse antibodies are produced for unlike epitopes of a specific antigen.
E) macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in a normal immune response.

57) Antibodies of the dissimilar classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other
A) in the way they are produced.
B) in their heavy-concatenation structure.
C) in the blazon of cell that produces them.
D) past the antigenic determinants that they recognize.
East) by the number of sugar subunits they take.

58) When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results from
A) the multivalence of the antibiotic having at to the lowest degree 2 bounden regions.
B) disulfide bridges between the antigens.
C) complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
D) bonds between grade I and class 2 MHC molecules.
Due east) denaturation of the antibodies.

59) Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by
A) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes.
B) antibiotic-mediated agglutination of microbes.
C) the release of cytokines by activated B cells.
D) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes and antibiotic-mediated agglutination of microbes only.
E) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes, antibiotic-mediated agglutination of microbes, and the release of cytokines by activated B cells.

sixty) The primary office of humoral immunity is
A) to defend against fungi and protozoa.
B) to turn down transplanted tissues.
C) to protect the body against cells that become cancerous.
D) to protect the torso against extracellular pathogens.
E) to defend against bacteria and viruses that take already infected cells.

61) Naturally acquired passive immunity results from the
A) injection of vaccine.
B) ingestion of interferon.
C) placental transfer of antibodies.
D) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes.
E) injection of antibodies.

62) In active amnesty, just non passive immunity, there is
A) conquering and activation of antibodies.
B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C) the transfer of antibodies from the female parent across the placenta.
D) the requirement for directly exposure to a living or imitation pathogen.
Eastward) the requirement of secretion of interleukins from macrophages.

63) Jenner'southward successful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the smallpox virus is due to the fact that
A) the immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
B) the cowpox virus fabricated antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
C) cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D) there are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
E) cowpox and smallpox are acquired by the same virus.

64) An private who has been bitten past a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from
A) vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin.
B) injection of antibodies to the toxin.
C) injection of interleukin-1.
D) injection of interleukin-2.
E) injection of interferon.

65) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that
A) the surface antigens of the pathogen non change.
B) a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies takes place.
C) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified.
D) the pathogen has only one epitope.
Due east) the MHC molecules are heterozygous.

66) A diseased patient is exposed to an unknown agent while out of the state. The patient'south blood is found to accept a high proportion of lymphocytes with CD8 surface proteins in her blood, a likely event of
A) the patient having encountered a bacterial infection which elicited CD8+ T cells.
B) the disease having been caused by a multicellular parasite, such as can be encountered in polluted water sources.
C) the CD8 proteins having been discharged from these lymphocytes to lyse the infected cells.
D) a viral infection eliciting proliferation of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
E) the CD8 proteins having "marked" the surface of cells that accumulate after the infection is over and signal patient recovery.

67) The switch of one B prison cell from producing 1 grade of antibody to some other antibody class that is responsive to the aforementioned antigen is due to
A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen.
B) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells.
C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response.
D) a patient's reaction to the showtime kind of antibody made past the plasma cells.
E) the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region Deoxyribonucleic acid.

68) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. Nevertheless, an individual in that diverse population has a far more than express array of MHC molecules considering
A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of means.
B) MHC proteins from ane private can only be of class I or form Ii.
C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene.
D) once a B jail cell has matured in the bone marrow, information technology is limited to two MHC response categories.
E) once a T jail cell has matured in the thymus, information technology can just respond to 2 MHC categories.

69) A os marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Jane'due south cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions, because
A) even though Jane'south blood type is a friction match to Bob'due south, her MHC proteins may non be a match.
B) a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant considering blood is more tolerant of alter.
C) for each gene, there is but one blood allele but many tissue alleles.
D) Jane's grade Two genes are not expressed in bone marrow.
E) Bob's immune response has been made inadequate earlier he receives the transplant.

seventy

lxx) Infection with HIV typically
A) increases the level of helper T cells for the first year after infection.
B) eliminates all T cells immediately.
C) leads to an immediate decrease in the number of HIV in the claret.
D) alters mitochondrial simply not genomic Dna sequences.
E) is plant in B cells but not in T cells.

71) The transfusion of blazon A blood to a person who has type O blood would consequence in
A) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.
B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated reddish blood cells.
C) the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type.
D) no reaction because type O is a universal donor.
E) no reaction because the O-blazon private does not accept antibodies.

72) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because
A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC molecules.
B) the tissue graft, dissimilar the bacterium, is isolated from the apportionment and will non enter into an immune response.
C) a response to the graft volition involve B cells and a response to the bacterium will non.
D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune organization by replicating inside normal torso cells.
Eastward) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.

73) In the human illness known equally lupus, there is an immune reaction confronting a patient'southward own DNA from broken or dying cells, which categorizes lupus equally
A) an allergy.
B) an immunodeficiency.
C) an autoimmune affliction.
D) an antigenic variation.
Eastward) a cancer.

74) A patient who undergoes a loftier level of mast cell degranulation, dilation of blood vessels, and astute drop in blood pressure level is probable suffering from
A) an autoimmune disease.
B) a typical allergy that tin exist treated by antihistamines.
C) an organ transplant, such as a skin graft.
D) the upshot of exhaustion on the immune system.
East) anaphylactic shock immediately post-obit exposure to an allergen.

75) An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation is
A) the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins.
B) the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with loftier efficiency.
C) human papilloma virus, which can remain latent for several years.
D) the causative agent of the autoimmune disease known as rheumatoid arthritis.
E) multiple sclerosis, which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system.

76) The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a period of fourth dimension is exemplified by
A) influenza, a detail strain of which returns every ten-xx years.
B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host.
C) Kaposi's sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in those not infected past HIV.
D) the virus that causes a form of the mutual cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives.
E) myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune illness that blocks muscle contraction from time to time.

77) Most newly emerging diseases issue in
A) greater severity as in that location are more and more than occurrences of the infection.
B) major pandemics, spreading the infection far and wide in the population.
C) the waning of the illness, due to evolutionary pick for resistant hosts and milder pathogens.
D) a destruction of the host'south immune system and eventual cancer.
E) no discoverable relationship with other pathogens in the same or related species.

78) Preventing the advent of the symptoms of an allergy attack would be the probable outcome of
A) blocking the zipper of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells.
B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies.
C) reducing the number of helper T cells in the body.
D) reducing the number of cytotoxic cells.
E) reducing the number of natural killer cells.

79) A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing later on existence given a bloom bouquet equally a birthday souvenir should first exist treated with
A) a vaccine.
B) complement.
C) sterile pollen.
D) antihistamines.
E) monoclonal antibodies.

eighty

fourscore) A patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient responding to an allergen such every bit ragweed pollen accept which of the post-obit in common?
A) an increase in cytotoxic T cell number
B) suffering from anaphylactic shock
C) risking development of an autoimmune disease
D) suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity
E) an increment in the levels of IgE

card image

Mutant fruit flies that make only one antimicrobial peptide were tested for survival after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi or with Micrococcus luteus leaner.

81) The results shown in the graphs support the hypothesis that
A) adding the defensin factor to such mutants protects them from fungal infection.
B) adding the drosomycin cistron to such mutants protects them from fungal infection.
C) wild-blazon flies with the full set of genes for antimicrobial peptides are highly susceptible to these infective agents.
D) the presence of any unmarried antimicrobial peptide protects against both infective agents.
Eastward) even the wild-blazon flies rarely, if always, survive for five days.

card image

82) According to the graph, naive B cells will produce effector cells
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and fourteen days.
C) betwixt 28 and 35 days.
D) betwixt 0 and 7 days and between 7 and 14 days.
E) betwixt 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.

card image

83) According to the graph, naive memory cells will be produced
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and 14 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 35 and 42 days.
Eastward) both between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.

card image

84) According to the graph, antibodies will be produced
A) between 3 and vii days.
B) between 14 and 21 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 14 and 21 days and between 42 and 56 days.
E) both between 3 and vii days and between 28 and 35 days.

card image

85) Study the table. The female parent could exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus in
A) Case 1 only.
B) Case 3 simply.
C) Cases i and two just.
D) Cases 1, 2, and 3.
E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

card image

86) In Cases ane and two in the table, the mothers would be able, if needed, to supply blood to the newborn even vii to nine months after birth; the same would not exist true for Example 3. This is because
A) the fetus in Case three would provoke an immune response in the mother that would behave over afterward the nascence.
B) the newborn in Instance 3 would shortly be able to brand antibodies to the B antigen of the female parent.
C) newborn children, until almost age ii, do not make appreciable antibodies, except against Rh+ antigen.
D) passive immunity would have worn off for the 3rd newborn, but not for the other two.
E) this difference is based on which of the mothers has been nursing her children, not on blood antigens.

card image

87) Written report the table. Giving the female parent anti-Rh antibodies earlier delivering her babe would be a wise precaution in
A) Case 1 only.
B) Example iii simply.
C) Cases ane and 2 merely.
D) Cases one, two, and three.
E) Information technology cannot exist adamant from the data given.

card image

88) Later a long and common cold winter, Jim was excited to start exploring the woods behind his new home. His starting time risk included exposure to poison ivy without any reaction. A calendar month later, though, a second walk through the woods was not so dandy, since ii days later Jim had a terrible rash that lasted for weeks. The fact that the rash took two days to develop indicates that this allowed response was an instance of
A) humoral amnesty.
B) cell-mediated amnesty.
C) innate immunity.
D) the activation of Cost-like receptors.
East) the activation of the complement system.

An otherwise good for you pupil in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and bloated lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she does not get ill.

89) Her immune organisation's recognition of the 2nd infection involves the
A) helper T cells.
B) retention B cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) natural killer cells.

An otherwise salubrious pupil in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a kid, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore pharynx and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This fourth dimension, though infected, she does non get sick.

90) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with
A) complement.
B) antibodies.
C) class I MHC molecules.
D) grade 2 MHC molecules.
Due east) dendritic cells.

Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and 2 examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, acquired by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

91) Select the description that likely indicates a child with Bruton's disease.
A) babe girl Denise, with low level of antibody response to streptococcal infection
B) infant male child John, with immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
C) baby boy Jeff, with no plasma cells following infection by bacterial pneumonia
D) baby girl Susan, with no show of a thymus gland
E) babe male child Matt, with very low circulating antigens

Immunodeficiencies tin can exist genetic in origin, and ii examples are Bruton'southward agammaglobulinemia, an 10-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

92) Bruton'south disorder will probable include
A) the failure of heavy-chain factor rearrangement in B cells.
B) the failure to comprise CD4 receptors into jail cell membranes.
C) an underexpression of the gene for the β chain of the T cell receptor.
D) an underexpression of the cistron for the CD8 receptor molecule.
Eastward) the inability of the bone marrow cells to interact with MHC molecules.

Immunodeficiencies tin be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton'southward agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, acquired past a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

93) Assume that a DGS-like phenotype was produced in a specific "gene-knockout" mouse, one lacking expression of HA3, a Hox gene known to be involved in developmental regulation in the mouse.
The phenotype of the HA3 knockout tin can exist ascertained by
A) a bone marrow biopsy.
B) an analysis for environmental agents known to cause birth defects.
C) a breast 10-ray.
D) the measurement of the proportion of CD4 cells to total lymphocytes.
E) an autopsy examination of the adrenal glands.

94) Which of these is not function of insect immunity?
A) enzyme activation of microbe-killing chemicals
B) activation of natural killer cells
C) phagocytosis past hemocytes
D) product of antimicrobial peptides
E) a protective exoskeleton

95) An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibiotic?
A) the disulfide bridge
B) the heavy-concatenation abiding regions but
C) variable regions of a heavy concatenation and calorie-free concatenation combined
D) the light-concatenation constant regions only
E) the tail

96) Which argument all-time describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells?
A) B cells confer agile amnesty; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity.
B) B cells impale pathogens direct; cytotoxic T cells kill host cells.
C) B cells secrete antibodies confronting a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells.
D) B cells comport out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response.
Eastward) B cells respond the start time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells answer subsequent times.

97) Which of the post-obit statements is not true?
A) An antibiotic has more than 1 antigen-binding site.
B) An antigen tin have different epitopes.
C) A pathogen makes more than 1 antigen.
D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple dissimilar antigens.
E) A liver cell makes 1 class of MHC molecule.

98) Which of the post-obit should exist the same in identical twins?
A) the gear up of antibodies produced
B) the fix of MHC molecules produced
C) the set of T prison cell antigen receptors produced
D) the susceptibility to a particular virus
East) the set of immune cells eliminated as cocky-reactive

99) Vaccination increases the number of
A) unlike receptors that recognize a pathogen.
B) lymphocytes with receptors that tin demark to the pathogen.
C) epitopes that the immune arrangement can recognize.
D) macrophages specific for a pathogen.
E) MHC molecules that can present an antigen.

100

100) Which of the following would not aid a virus avoid triggering an adaptive allowed response?
A) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins
B) infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules
C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses
D) infecting and killing helper T cells
E) building the viral crush from host proteins

caseythappere.blogspot.com

Source: https://www.easynotecards.com/notecard_set/88754

Campbell Biology Chapter 7 Reading Guide Answers

0 Response to "Campbell Biology Chapter 7 Reading Guide Answers"

Post a Comment

Iklan Atas Artikel

Iklan Tengah Artikel 1

Iklan Tengah Artikel 2

Iklan Bawah Artikel